DUMPS BASE EXAM DUMPS CISCO 350-401 28% OFF Automatically For You Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully 1. What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB? A. The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions B. The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored C. The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB D. The FIB is populated based on RIB content Answer: D 2. Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network? A. Marking B. Classification C. Shaping D. Policing Answer: A 3. DRAGDROP Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct QoS components on the right. Answer: Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully 4.Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true? A. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane B. It maintains two tables in the data plane the FIB and adjacency table C. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler D. The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions Answer: B 5. What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment? A. faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased B. lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other C. less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises D. ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware Answer: B 6. DRAGDROP Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct infrastructure deployment types on the right. Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully Answer: Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully 7.How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion? A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate. B. It buffers and queue packets above the committed rate. C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery. D. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues. Answer: B Explanation: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/quality-of-service-qos/qos- policing/19645-policevsshape.html 8.An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.) A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible Answer: CE 9.Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN? A. vBond B. vSmart C. vManage D. WAN Edge Answer: A Explanation: Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2018/pdf/BRKCRS -2112.pdfpage 8. 10. What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric ? (Choose two.) A. core switch B. vBond controller C. edge node D. access switch E. border node Answer: CE 11.What is the role of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment? A. It performs authentication andauthorization. Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully B. It manages the controlplane. C. It is the centralized network managementsystem. D. It manages the dataplane. Answer: B 12.When a wired client connects to an edge switch in a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which component decides whether the client has access to the network? A. control-plane node B. Identity Service Engine C. RADIUS server D. edge node Answer: B 13.Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on-premises deployment? A. efficient scalability B. virtualization C. storage capacity D. supported systems Answer: A 14. In an SD-WAN deployment, which action in the vSmart controller responsible for? A. handle, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD- WAN fabric B. onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric C. gather telemetry data from yEdge routers D. distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the SD-WAN fabric Answer: D 15.Where is radio resource management performed in a cisco SD-access wireless solution? A. DNA Center B. control plane node C. wireless controller D. Cisco CMX Answer: C 16.DRAG DROP Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure types on the right. Answer: Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully 17.How does the RIB differ from the FIB? A. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route. B. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. C. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. D. The FIB includes many routes a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination. Answer: C 18. Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD-Access architecture? A. underlay network B. overlay network C. VPN routing/forwarding D. easy virtual network Answer: B 19. What is the difference between CEF and process switching? A. CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage. B. CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching. C. CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet. D. Process switching is faster than CEF. Answer: C 20. What are two considerations when using SSO as a network redundancy feature? (Choose two.) A. must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 2 operations B. must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 3 operations C. both supervisors must be configured separately D. the multicast state is preserved during switchover E. requires synchronization between supervisors in order to guarantee continuous connectivity Answer: B E Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully 21. DRAG DROP Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct infrastructure deployment type on the right. Answer: Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully 22.In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints? A. LISP B. DHCP C. SXP D. VXLAN Answer: A 23. What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two.) A. The FIB is derived from the data plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB. B. The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the Information used to choose the egress interface for each packet. C. FIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the RIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet. D. The FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB. E. The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB. Answer: B,E Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully 24.Which two network problems indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two.) A. port flapping B. misrouted network packets C. excess jitter D. bandwidth-related packet loss E. duplicate IP addresses Answer: C D 25. In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to edge node bindings? A. fabric control plane node B. fabric wireless controller C. fabric border node D. fabric edge node. Answer: A 26.DRAG DROP Drag and drop the QoS mechanisms from the left onto their descriptions on the right. Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully Answer: 27.Which control plane protocol is used between Cisco SD-WAN routers and vSmart controllers? A. TCP B. OMP C. UDP D. BGP Answer: B 28.In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best- practice for the core layer? A. provide QoS prioritization services such as marking, queueing, and classification for critical network traffic B. provide advanced network security features such as 802. IX, DHCP snooping, VACLs, and port security C. provide redundant Layer 3 point-to-point links between the core devices for more predictable and faster convergence D. provide redundant aggregation for access layer devices and first-hop redundancy protocols such as VRRP Answer: C Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully 29. What is a VPN in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment? A. virtual channel used to carry control plane information B. attribute to identify a set of services offered in specific places in the SD -WAN fabric C. common exchange point between two different services D. virtualized environment that provides traffic isolation and segmentation in the SD -WAN fabric Answer: D 30. Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment? A. Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks B. Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic C. Provides reachability border nodes in the fabric underlay D. Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP. Answer: B 31. What is the role of a fusion router in an SD-Access solution? A. provides connectivity to external networks B. acts as a DNS server C. performs route leaking between user-defined virtual networks and shared services D. provides additional forwarding capacity to the fabric Answer: C 32. Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment? A. onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric B. distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge routers C. manage, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD -WAN fabric D. gather telemetry data from vEdge routers Answer: B 33. What is one fact about Cisco SD-Access wireless network infrastructure deployments? A. The access point is part of the fabric underlay B. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay C. The access point is part the fabric overlay D. The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully Answer: C 34. In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node? A. to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric B. to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric C. to advertise fabric IP address space to external network D. to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric Answer: B 35.What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on- prem deployment? (Choose Two) A. In a cloud environment, the company controls technical issues. On-prem environments rely on the service provider to resolve technical issue. B. Cloud costs adjust up or down depending on the amount of resources consumed. On-Prem costs for hardware, power, and space are ongoing regardless of usage C. Cloud deployments require long implementation times due to capital expenditure processes. OnPrem deployments can be accomplished quickly using operational expenditure processes. D. Cloud resources scale automatically to an increase in demand. On-prem requires additional capital expenditure. E. In a cloud environment, the company is in full control of access to their data. On- prem risks access to data due to service provider outages Answer: BD 36. What is the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table? A. Router prefix lookups happens in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM B. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match C. The MAC address table is contained in CAM. ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM D. TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables Answer: C 37. Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN? A. vBond B. vEdge C. vSmart D. vManage Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully Answer: D Explanation: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/CVD- SD-WAN-Design-2018OCT.pdf 38.A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilitates a migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design? A. Layer 2 access B. three-tier C. two-tier D. routed access Answer: C 39. Which statement about a fabric access point is true? A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node B. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node C. It is in local mode an must connected directly to the fabric edge switch D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch Answer: C Explanation: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/sda- sdg-2019oct.html 40.Which element enables communication between guest VMs within a virtualized environment? A. vSwitch B. virtual router C. hypervisor D. pNIC Answer: A 41. Which action is performed by Link Management Protocol in a Cisco StackWise Virtual domain? A. It discovers the stackwise domain and brings up SVL interfaces B. It rejects any unidirectional link traffic forwarding C. It determines if the hardware is compatible to form the stackwise virtual domain D. It determines which switch becomes active or standby Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully Answer: B 42. What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two.) A. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet B. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments C. Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode D. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based E. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based Answer: A B 43. Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.) A. TCP window size B. TCP MSS C. IP MTU D. DF bit Clear E. MTU ignore F. PMTUD Answer: B F 44. Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site? A. ETR B. MR C. ITR D. MS Answer: A 45.Refer to the exhibit. Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1? A. VRF VPN_B B. Default VRF C. Management VRF D. VRF VPN_A Answer: B 46. What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in a data center environment? (Choose two.) A. increased security B. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements C. reduced IP and MAC address requirements D. speedy deployment E. smaller Layer 2 domain Answer: B D 47. Which statement about route targets is true when using VRF-Lite? A. When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities B. Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table C. Route targets allow customers to be assigned overlapping addresses D. Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table Answer: B 48. Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination? A. PETR B. PITR C. map resolver Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully D. map server Answer: B 49. Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type2 hypervisor? A. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS B. Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it C. Type 1 hypervisor relies on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources D. Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques Answer: A 50. Which statement about VXLAN is true? A. VXLAN uses TCP 35 the transport protocol over the physical data center network B. VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24 -bits, which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the same network C. VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router boundaries D. VXLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention Answer: C 51. Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel? A. MTU B. Window size C. MRU D. MSS Answer: D 52. Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on Type 1 hypervisors? A. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes B. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server C. Each virtual machines requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the address of the physical server Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully D. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server Answer: A 53. Which two namespaces does the LISP network architecture and protocol use? (Choose two.) A. TLOC B. RLOC C. DNS D. VTEP E. EID Answer: B E 54. Which two entities are Type 1 hypervisors? (Choose two.) A. Oracle VM Virtual Box B. Microsoft Hyper-V C. VMware server D. VMware ESX E. Microsoft Virtual PC Answer: BD 55.DRAG DROP Drag and drop the LISP components from the left onto the functions they perform on the right. Not all options are used. Precise Cisco 350-401 Exam Dumps V20.02 [2022] Pass 350-401 Exam Successfully Answer: 56.Which action is a function of VTEP in VXLAN? A. tunneling traffic from IPv6 to IPv4 VXLANs B. allowing encrypted communication on the local VXLAN Ethernet segment C. encapsulating and de-encapsulating VXLAN Ethernet frames D. tunneling traffic from IPv4 to IPv6 VXLANs Answer: C 57.Which two actions provide controlled Layer 2 network connectivity between virtual machines running on the same hypervisor? (Choose two.) A. Use a single trunk link to an external Layer2 switch B. Use a virtual switch provided by the hypervisor C. Use VXLAN fabric after installing VXLAN tunneling drivers on the virtual machines D. Use a single routed link to an external router on stick E. Use a virtual switch running as a separate virtual machine Answer: BE 58. What is a Type 1 hypervisor? A. runs directly on a physical server and depends on a previously installed operating system B. runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system